Some MCQ's with explanations

A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face, neck, ‘V’ area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be:

1. Skin biopsy

2. Estimation of IgE levels in blood

3. Patch test

4. Intradermal prick test

Answer

3. Patch test

Reference

Rook Textbook of Dermatology Chapter 20

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Discussion

In phytodermatitis, the pattern of dermatitis varies depending on the source. Typically, it involves the hands, forearms, face and genitals. Often it is acute and vesicular. Involvement of the eyelids is common. Sometimes, the hands only are involved, with fissuring and hyperkeratosis of the fingertips and subungual hyperkeratosis (as with tulip bulbs, garlic, etc.). At other times the dermatitis may be of a volatile pattern and may present as a light-aggravated or 'exposed site' dermatitis (as with Compositae dermatitis). The principal types of phytodermatitis are:

1. irritant contact phytodermatitis-both chemical and physical
2. allergic contact phytodermatitis-both immediate and delayed;
3. phytophototoxic dermatitis;
4. pseudophytophotodermatitis, for example Ranunculaceae;
5. allergic contact phytodermatitis with secondary photo-sensitivity, for example Compositae, lichens, etc.

Explanation

The allergen may be localized anywhere in the plant, but usually the leaves are used for patch testing. Primin occurs in minute glandular hairs most closely set on the surface of small leaves A 1 cm piece of leaf can be used for patch testing, but false-negative reactions are common, and patch-test sensitization occurs in 0.8% of those tested. It is therefore preferable to test with a standardized extract of primin and Compositae.

Comments

Active sensitization is uncommon when such extracts are used. The risk of patch-test sensitization from plants other than Primula and poison ivy has not yet been systemically studied.

Tips

The condition is more common in men. Broad spectrum photoprotection and light avoidance are beneficial.

Barberio’s test is used to detect semen

074. Which of following tests is used to detect semen?

1. Phenolphthalein test

2. Reine’s test

3. Barberio’s test

4. Paraffin test

Answer

3. Barberio’s test

Reference

Parikh 6^th Edition Page 7.26

Apoorva Nandy 1^st Edition Page 128

Reddy 17^th Edition Page 328

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The tests used for Chemical Examination of seminal fluid are

Ä Florence test : dark brown crystals due to the formation of chlorine periodide

Ä Barberio’s test (Barbario) : tests spermine in semen, with picric acid

Ä Acid Phosphatase test : Quantitative test

Ä Test for Creatine Phosphokinase : Levels of more than 400 units/ml

Ä Choline and Spermine Test

Ä Gel Electrophoresis test :

Ä LDM Isoenzyme Method

Ä Acid Phosphatase Isoenzyme Test

Ä Ammonium Molybdate Test (Phosphorus)

Ä Semen Specific Glycoprotein (P30 ) Test

Ä Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), the SEMA® assay, for a seminal vesicle-specific antigen (SVSA)

Explanation

1. Phenolphthalein test (Kastle Meyer test), Benzedine test, Leucomalachite green test, Orthotolidine (Blue or green) test (Kohn and O’kelly test) and Luminal test are used to detec blood

2. Reine’s test ??? - Rinne's test compares the patients ability to hear a tone conducted via air and bone - the mastoid process.

3. Barberio’s test is to detect semen.

4. Paraffin test (also known as the dermal nitrate test) uses the reagent diphenylamine to detect gun powder

Comments

Basis of Berberio’s Test: Detection of Spermine

Procedure: A few drops of Berberio’s reagent when added to spermatic fluid produces crystals of sperm in picrate (needle shaped, rhombic & of yellow colour).

For various valid reasons, like non-specificity and lack of reproducibility, the florence and berberio’s tests have not been accepted universally.

Tips

Semen consist of the following

1. Spermatozoa (10%)

2. Seminal Plasma (90%)

3. Epithelial Cell (<>

Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown Between 2-3 days

073. Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown:

1. Between 12-24 hours

2. Between 2-3 days

3. Between 4-5 days

4. Between 5-7 days

Answer

2. Between 2-3 days

Reference

Parikh 6^th Edition Page 4.3

Apoorva Nandy 1^st Edition Page 213

Reddy 17^th Edition Page 138

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From abrasions, the time of assault can be roughly assessed

Ä When fresh, an abrasion is red with evidence of oozing of serum and a little blood. There is no scab

Ä By 8 to 24 hours, there is a reddish scab formation

Ä By 2^nd and 3^rd day, the scab is reddish brown

Ä By 4^th and 5^th Day, it is dark brown

Ä By 6^th Day, it is blackish and it starts falling off from the margins. Epithelium grows underneath the scab

Ä After 7 Days, Scab dries, shrinks and falls off.

Ä By A big scab may take a few more days to fall off

Explanation

Self Explanatory

Comments

Except Apoorva Nandy, the other books do not talk about the 4^th and 5^th Day evolution of scab

Tips

Difference between antemortem and post mortem abrasion

Trait	Antemortem abrasion	Post mortem abrasion
Site	Anywhere on the body	Usually over bony prominences
Colour	Bright reddish brown	Yellowish, translucent and parchment like
Exudation	More; scab slightly raised	Less; Scab often lies slightly below the level of the skin
Microscopic feature	Intravital reaction and congestion seen	No intravital reaction and no congestion

Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India and recognized by MCI are registered in

072. Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India and recognized by MCI are registered in:

1. First schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

2. Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

3. Part I of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

4. Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

Answer

4. Part II of third schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

Reference

Parikh 6^th Edition Page 1.24

Apoorva Nandy 1^st Edition Page 18

Reddy 17^th Edition Page 21

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The Indian Medical Council maintains three schedules.

Ä The first schedule contains the list of different medical degrees offered by different Universities or Institutions inside India, which are recognized by the Council and Government of India

Ä The Second Schedule contains the list of medical degrees conferred outside India and are recognized by the Medical Council of India and Government of India

Ä The Third Schedule has two parts

o Part A of the third schedule contains the list of medical qualifications conferred by Indian Universities or Institutions but not yet included in the First Schedule.

o Part B of the third schedule includes the list of standard medical qualifications of foreign countries which are recognized when Indian citizens possess the qualifications

Explanation

Self Explanatory

Comments

If an Indian national obtains a foreign qualification which is not included in part II of THrid Schedule, he can apply to the Central government. The candidate is required to provide full information with regard to the course of study, syllabus, and duration of course etc. This is forwarded to IMC which has authority to enter into negotiations with any of the medical councils of the foreign countries and can recognize such foreign qualifications on reciprocal basis. The Central Government, may, by notification in the Official Gazette, amend the part II of the Third Schedule so as to include such qualification there in

Tips

Dr.B.C.Roy was the first Indian to be the president of MCI in 1939. Hope you all know about B.C.Roy. His birthday July 1^st is being observed as Doctors Day

Spalding’s sign occurs after Death of foetus in uterus

071. Spalding’s sign occurs after:

1. Birth of live foetus

2. Death of foetus in uterus

3. Rigor mortis of infant

4. Cadaveric spasm

Answer

2. Death of foetus in uterus

Reference

Parikh 6^th Edition Page 2.36, 5.75

Apoorva Nandy 1^st Edition Page 422

Reddy 17^th Edition Page 341

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In intrauterine maceration, the skull vault bones may partly overlap each other. This is called as Spalding’s sign and is also detectable by X Ray examination before the birth of the dead fetus

Explanation

Self Explanatory

Comments

Maceration is a process of aseptic autolysis of a fetus dead in utero. It occurs when the dead fetus remains in the utero for 3 to 4 days surrounded by liquor amnii but with exclusion of air. It does not occur if the dead fetus is born within 24 hours. It is characterized by softening and degeneration of tissues. The process is aseptic because the fetus being enclosed in the membranes is in a sterile condition.

Tips

Mummification results when death of a fetus occurs from deficient supply of blood or when liquor amnii is scanty and when no air has entered the uterus. In this condition the fetus is dried up and shriveled.

Finger Print Bureau was first established in Writer's Building at Calcutta in the year 1897

070. Finger Print Bureau was first established in:

1. England

2. China

3. India

4. Singapore

Answer

3. India

Reference

http://ncrb.nic.in/cfpb.htm

Parikh 6^th Edition Page 2.15

Apoorva Nandy 1^st Edition Page 92

Reddy 17^th Edition Page 67

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General Knowledge. A passing mention is given in textbooks. And this fact is NOT mentioned in Western Textbooks (please see below)

Discussion

The idea that fingerprints as a means of identification was first given by Sir Wiliam Herschelle, Distt. Magistrate of Hooghly District of Bengal province in 1858. Later Dr. Henry Faults gave the idea of tracing a criminal from the latent prints found at the scene of crime and came to the conclusion that no two fingerprints are alike. Based on the idea of Herschelle and Faults, Sir Francis Galton, the renowned English Scientist established scientifically the basic principles of uniqueness and permanency in fingerprints.

Explanation

It was then that Sir Edward Richard Henry, the IGP, Lower Bengal with the able assistance of two of his Indian officers viz. Khan Bahadur Azizul Haq and Rai Bahadur Hemchandra Bose developed a system of classification of fingerprints and thereby discarding the anthropometric system of identification. Thereafter the first ever Finger Print Bureau of the world was established at Writer's Building at Calcutta in the year 1897.

Comments

Key Dates in the History of Fingerprinting

Ä The distinctive nature of fingerprints has been known for centuries.

Ä The ancient Babylonians used fingerprint impressions to record business transactions and fingerprints were used on Chinese documents more than a thousand years ago. The scientific use of fingerprints to solve crime, however, started little more than a hundred years ago.

Ä 1858 Sir William Herschel, a British Administrator in Bengal, makes the first practical application of fingerprints for personal identification when he requires Indians to place their fingerprints as well as their signatures on contracts.

Ä 1880 Dr Henry Faulds, a doctor working in Tokyo, looks at the possibility of fingerprint science identifying criminals by the fingerprints left at the crime scene using printer's ink.

Ä 1892 Juan Vucetich, a police officer in Argentina, makes the first fingerprint identification from a crime scene, and opens the first fingerprint bureau in the world.

Ä 1892 English scientist Sir Francis Galton publishes an accurate and in-depth study of the fingerprint science, including an attempt at a system of fingerprint classification for large collections of fingerprints.

Ä 1897 Sir Edward Henry, Inspector General of Police in Bengal and later Commissioner of London's Metropolitan Police, with the assistance of two Bengali Police Officers, devises a simplified fingerprint classification system for police use and introduces it in India. The Henry system is the basis of most fingerprint systems in the English-speaking world.

Ä 1901 The Fingerprint Bureau is formed at New Scotland Yard.

Ä 1902 In Australia, Sam McCauley begins fingerprinting in NSW prisons and establishes a Fingerprint Bureau at Darlinghurst Gaol.

Ä 1903 NSW establishes the first State fingerprint bureau, followed by Victoria (1903), Queensland and South Australia (1904), Tasmania (1912), Western Australia (1928), the Northern Territory (1957) and the ACT (1967). In 1980 the Australian Federal Police incorporate the ACT fingerprint bureau.

Ä 1941 The NSW Fingerprint Bureau becomes the Central Fingerprint Bureau of Australia, a jointly-funded national fingerprint support service.

Ä 1957 The chemical Ninhydrin is used for the first time to develop fingerprints left on paper.

Ä 1986 The Central Fingerprint Bureau of Australia is replaced by the National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS), a computerised national database based on scanning original ink fingerprints.

Ä 2001 Establishment of the new National Automated Fingerprint Identification System. The system commences operations with 2.4 million 'ten print' records, covering 24 million individual fingerprints and 4.8 million palm prints, and 180,000 latent prints from unsolved crime scenes.

Tips

It is disheartening to note that almost all the western source do not mention the name of the two Bengali Officers, nor do they mention that the first bureau was established in India. Western Bias ??!!

Isotretinoin - Multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years.

068. A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be:

1. Acitretin

2. Isotretinoin

3. Doxycycline

4. Azithromycin

Answer

2. Isotretinoin

Reference

Harrison 16^th Edition Page 295

Katzung 9^th Edition Page 1024

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Treatment of acne vulgaris is directed toward elimination of comedones by normalization of follicular keratinization, decreasing sebaceous gland activity, decreasing the population of lipophilic bacteria and yeast, and decreasing inflammation. Acne vulgaris may be treated with either local or systemic medications. Minimal to moderate, pauci-inflammatory disease may respond adequately to local therapy alone. Although areas affected with acne should be kept clean, there is little evidence to suggest that removal of surface oils plays an important role in therapy. Overly vigorous scrubbing may aggravate acne due to mechanical rupture of comedones. Topical agents such as retinoic acid, benzoyl peroxide, or salicylic acid may alter the pattern of epidermal desquamation, preventing the formation of comedones and aiding in the resolution of preexisting cysts. Topical antibacterial agents such as benzoyl peroxide, azelaic acid, topical erythromycin (with or without zinc), clindamycin, or tetracycline are also useful adjuncts to therapy.

Patients with moderate to severe acne with a prominent inflammatory component will benefit from the addition of systemic therapy. Oral tetracyclines or erythromycin in doses of 250 to 1000 mg/d will decrease follicular colonization with some of the lipophilic organisms. They also appear to have an anti-inflammatory effect independent of their antibacterial effect. Female patients who do not respond to oral antibiotics may benefit from hormonal therapy. Women placed on oral contraceptives containing ethinyl estradiol and norgestimate have demonstrated improvement in their acne when compared to a placebo control.

Explanation

Severe nodulocystic acne not responsive to oral antibiotics, hormonal therapy, or topical therapy may be treated with the synthetic retinoid isotretinoin.

Comments

Isotretinoin is used at doses of 0.5 to 2.0 mg/kg as a single daily dose for 15 to 20 weeks.

Tips

The use of this drug is limited by its teratogenicity, and female patients must be screened for pregnancy prior to initiating therapy, maintain a method of birth control during therapy, and be screened for pregnancy during treatment. Patients receiving this medication develop extremely dry skin and cheilitis and must be followed for development of hypertriglyceridemia.

Slit lamp examination of eye

067. A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis?

1. Slit lamp examination of eye

2. Measurement of intraocular tension

3. Examination of fundus

4. Retinal artery angiography

Answer

1. Slit lamp examination of eye

Reference

Harrison 16^th Edition Page 2457

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It is easy to arrive at an diagnosis. Axillary hyperpigmentations point to Neurofibromatosis. To confirm the diagnosis, we have to look for the Lisch nodules.

Explanation

1. Slit lamp examination of eye is done to diagnose Lisch nodules of Iris

2. Measurement of intraocular tension is also needed in Neurofibromatosis to rule out Congenital Glaucoma (often associated with the disease) but is not the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis

3. Examination of fundus is also done, but not for supporting the diagnosis

4. Retinal artery angiography will not help in supporting the diagnosis

Comments

Ocular manifestations of neurofibromatosis include

1. Plexiform tumours of lids with Ptosis
2. Thickened corneal nerves
3. Pulsating proptosis (due to transmitted cerebral pulsations through the defects in the orbital walls)
4. Glioma of optic nerve
5. Congenital Glaucoma

Tips

Mutation of the NF1 gene on chromosome 17 causes von Recklinghausen's disease. The NF1 gene is a tumor suppressor gene; it encodes a protein, neurofibromin, which modulates signal transduction through the ras GTPase pathway. Patients with NF1 are at increased risk of developing nervous system neoplasms, including plexiform neurofibromas, optic gliomas, ependymomas, meningiomas, astrocytomas, and pheochromocytomas. Neurofibromas may undergo secondary malignant degeneration and become sarcomas.

Transplantation of Human Organs Act - 1994

061. In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India?

1. 1994

2. 1996

3. 2000

4. 2002

Answer

1. 1994

Reference

The Act itself

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Legal Books

Discussion

THE TRANSPLANTATION OF HUMAN ORGANS ACT, 1994

(Central Act 42 0f 1994)

Ä Bill No. LIX-F of 1992

Ä THE TRANSPLANTATION OF HUMAN ORGANS BILL, 1994

Ä As Passed by the Houses of Parliament

o Rajya Sabha on 5th May, 1993)

o Lok Sabha on 14th June 1994

Ä Amendments made by the Lok Sabha

o Agreed to by the Rajya Sabha on 15th June 1994)

Ä Assented to on 8-7-1994 Act No. 42 of 1994

Explanation

Self Explanatory

Comments

This fact is also given in our text books. So this is not exactly “out of syllabus”

Tips

Legal Information is also available with our affiliate sites like www.mcqsonline.com www.nellaimedicos.com and www.penandscale.com

Premium of the “Community based Universal Health Insurance Scheme” launched during 2003-04 - Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.2 per day for a fa

060. The premium of the “Community based Universal Health Insurance Scheme” launched during 2003-04 ranges from

1. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.2 per day for a family of seven

2. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.3 per day for a family of seven

3. Rs.2 per day poor and individual to Rs.2 per day for a family of seven

4. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.7 per day for a family of seven

Answer

1. Rs.1 per day poor and individual to Rs.2 per day for a family of seven

Reference

http://www.niacl.com/social-universal.html

The New India Assurance

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Discussion and Explanation

Salient features of the Universal Health Insurance Scheme are given below

Benefits

Ä Medical Reimbursement

o The policy provides reimbursement of hospitalisation expenses upto Rs.30,000/- to an individual /family subject to the following sublimits:

o (i) Room, Boarding expenses upto Rs.150/- per day

o (ii) If admitted in ICU upto Rs.300/- per day

o Surgeon, Anaesthetist, Consultant, specialists fees, Nursing expenses upto Rs.4,500/- per illness/ injury

o Anaesthesia, Blood, Oxygen, OT charges, Medicines, Diagnostic material & X-Ray, Dialysis, Radiotherapy, Chemotherapy, Cost of pacemaker, Artificial limb, etc upto Rs. 4,500/- per illness/ injury

o Total expenses incurred for any one illness upto Rs. 15,000/-

Ä Personal Accident Cover

o Coverage for Death of the Earning Head of the family (as named in the schedule) due to accident: Rs. 25,000/-.

Ä Disability Cover

o If the earning head of the family is hospitalized due to an accident / illness a compensation of Rs.50/- per day will be paid per day of hospitalization up to a maximum of 15 days after a waiting period of 3 days.

Ä For purpose of this policy HOSPITAL means:

o Any Hospital/ Nursing home registered with the local authorities and under the supervision of a registered and qualified Medical practitioner.

o Hospital/ Nursing Home run by Government.

o Enlisted hospitals run by NGOS / Trusts / selected private hospitals with fixed schedule of charges.

o It should have minimum 15 beds (10 in case of class 'C' cities having a population lest than 5 lakhs) with fully equipped OT, fully qualified nursing staff round the clock and fully qualified doctor should be in charge round the clock.

o Hospitalization should be for a minimum period of 24 hrs. However this time limit is not applied to some specific treatments and also where due to technological advancement hospitalization for 24 hrs may not be required.

Premium

Ä For an individual

o Rs. 1.00 per day

o Rs. 365/- per annum

Ä For a family upto 5 (including the first3 children)

o Rs. 1.00 per day

o Rs. 548/- per annum

Ä For a family upto 7 (including the first 3 children and dependent parents)

o Rs. 2.00 per day

o Rs. 730/- per annum

Premium Subsidy For BPL Families

Ä For families below the poverty line the Government will provide a premium subsidy of Rs.100/- per family.

Main Exclusions

Ä All pre-existing diseases.

Ä All diseases contracted during the first 30 days from the Commencement date of the policy Provided that in the opinion of the panel doctor/s the insured person could not have known about the existence of disease or its symptoms at the time of making the proposal AND had not taken any consultation, treatment for the disease prior to taking the insurance.

Ä Some of the diseases such as Cataract, Benign Prismatic Hypertrophy, Hysterectomy, hernia, Hydrocele, Fistula in anus, piles, sinusitis, Congenital internal disease are not covered in the first year of the policy.

Ä Corrective, cosmetic or aesthetic dental surgery or treatment.

Ä Cost of spectacles, contact lens and hearing aid.

Ä Vaccination, inoculation, change of life or cosmetic treatment or surgery HIV, AIDS, Sterility, Venereal Disease, Intentional Self injury, use of Intoxicating Drugs/ Alcohol.

Ä Primarily diagnostic expenses not related to sickness/ injury.

Ä Treatment for Pregnancy, Childbirth, Miscarriage, abortion etc.

Claim Settlement

Ä Claim settlement to be done through TPAS mentioned in the schedule or by the insurance company. To be made cashless as far as possible through listed hospitals.

Other Features

Ä Any One Illness

o Will be deemed to mean continuous period of illness and it includes relapse within 60 days from the date of last consultation with the hospital.

Ä Age Limitations

o This Policy covers people between the age of 3 months to 65 years.

Ä Family

o Means earning head, spouse and up to maximum of three dependent children. Dependent parents can also be included.

Ä Floater Basis

o The benefit of family will operate on floater basis i.e. the total reimbursement of Rs.30,000/- can be availed of individually or collectively by members of the family.

Comments

Policy details given are indicative, not exhaustive. Please contact your nearest NIA office (www.niacl.com) for further details.

Tips

This scheme is also being offered by Oriental Insurance Company Ltd http://orientalinsurance.nic.in/

MCI Notification Regarding FMGE

MCI Notification Regarding FMGE

MCI NOTIFICATION


(Published in Part III, Section 4 of the Gazette of India Extraordinary issue dated 18th February ,2002)
MEDICAL COUNCIL OF INDIA

NOTIFICATION

New Delhi dated the 13th February 2002
No. MCI-203 (9)/2001-Regn/
In exercise of the powers conferred by section 33 of the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956 (102 of 1956), the Medical Council of India, with the previous sanction of the Central Government, hereby makes the following regulations, namely: -
Short title and commencement – (1) These regulations may be called the Screening Test Regulations, 2002.
They shall come into force on the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.
2. Definitions:- In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires,-
"Act" means the Indian Medical Council Act,1956 (102 of 1956);
"Council" means the Medical Council of India constituted under section 3 of the Act;
"Permanent Registration" means registration for the purpose of enrolment on any State Medical Register or Indian Medical Register after obtaining the Primary Medical qualification followed by completion of such practical training as prescribed either in India or abroad as per the provisions of the Act;

"Prescribed" means prescribed by regulations made under this Act;
"Prescribed Authority" means a medical institution or any other examining body authorized by the Central Government/Medical Council of India to conduct Screening Test.
"Primary Medical qualification" means a medical qualification awarded by any medical institution outside India which is a recognized qualification for enrolment as medical practitioner in the country in which the institution awarding the said qualification is situated and which is equivalent to MBBS in India;
"Provisional Registration" means provisional registration in a State Medical Register or Indian Medical Register for the purpose of undergoing practical training in India as prescribed and for no other purpose by an Indian citizen possessing any primary medical qualification but has not undergone such practical training after obtaining that qualification as may be required by the rules or regulations in force in the country granting the qualification;
"qualifying examination" means the examination to be qualified to become eligible for admission to MBBS course in India as prescribed in the Graduate Medical Education Regulations, 1997.
"registration" means either Provisional Registration or Permanent Registration.
3.. An Indian citizen possessing a primary medical qualification awarded by any medical institution outside India who is desirous of getting provisional or permanent registration with the Medical Council of India or any State Medical Council on or after 15.03.2002 shall have to qualify a screening test conducted by the prescribed authority for that purpose as per the provisions of section 13 of the Act:
Provided that a person seeking permanent registration shall not have to qualify the screening test if he/she had already qualified the same before getting his/her provisional registration.
4. Eligibility Criteria: No person shall be allowed to appear in the screening test unless:
(1) he/she is a citizen of India and possesses any primary medical qualification, either whose name and the institution awarding it are included in the World Directory of Medical Schools, published by the World Health Organisation; or which is confirmed by the Indian Embassy concerned to be a recognised qualification for enrolment as medical practitioner in the country in which the institution awarding the said qualification is situated;
(2) he/she had obtained ‘Eligibility Certificate’ from the Medical Council of India as per the ‘Eligibility Requirement for taking admission in an undergraduate medical course in a Foreign Medical Institution Regulations, 2002’. This requirement shall not be necessary in respect of Indian citizens who have acquired the medical qualifications from foreign medical institutions or have obtained admission in foreign medical institution before 15th March, 2002.
The purpose of conducting the screening test shall be only to determine the eligibility or otherwise of a candidate for his or her registration with the Medical Council of India or any State Medical Council and qualifying the same shall not confer any other right, whatsoever, on a candidate.

The details regarding the Scheme for conducting the screening test and the syllabus of the test shall be announced by the Medical Council of India from time to time for the information of the candidates.

The screening test shall be conducted twice every year as per the Schedule of examination announced by the Prescribed Authority. The procedure of conducting the test shall be in accordance with the Scheme announced by the Medical Council of India in this regard.
8. There shall be three papers of multiple choice questions in Pre-Clinical, Para-Clinical and Clinical Medicine and its allied subjects including Obstetrics and Gynaecology . The language of the test shall be English. The test for each paper will be of three hours duration.
A candidate shall be declared as having passed only if he/she obtains a minimum of 50% (fifty percent) marks in each paper separately. The minimum qualifying marks shall apply to all categories of candidates without exception.

A candidate may avail of maximum three chances to appear and pass the test. Actual appearance at the test will constitute an attempt. If he/she does not qualify even in his/her 3rd appearance in the test, the candidate will not be eligible for registration by the Council or by any State Medical Council in India.

The Prescribed Authority shall intimate the result of the Screening Test to the candidates as well as to the Secretary, Medical Council of India and the State Medical Councils. The unsuccessful candidates shall also be appropriately informed. The candidates who qualify the Screening Test may apply to the Secretary, Medical Council of India, New Delhi or to any State Medical Council for provisional registration/permanent registration alongwith the requisite registration fee in favour of Secretary, Medical Council of India or the State Medical Council. The Medical Council of India or the State Medical Councils shall issue provisional registration to such successful candidates, who are yet to undergo one year internship in an approved institution and issue permanent registration to such eligible candidates who have already undergone one year internship, as the case may be.
Sd/
(DR.M. SACHDEVA)
Secretary
Medical Council of India

Tips for your preparations !!!!!!

Regardless of what i write here, you must follow your own plan according to your strengths and weaknesses. Spend more time on the subjects in which you are weak. This is the kkey to success. You have to identify which subjects made you suffer during your profs or during your previous attempt(s). Its always a good idea to finish them first. You can follow any order in doing subjects as u like. Try to finish all subjects atleast2-3 months beforte the main exam so that you can have adequate time to give the revisions.

For each subject, you have to do the previous years' questions(scr and All India), corresponding theory book and . I also would recommend to keep Harrison alongside as a referance while doing any subject. It will always come handy.

I also recommend you to take a small notebook and start taking notes of difficult to remember points, some important flow charts and tables. These come really handy for last day revision before the exam. You have to make sure that you don get too carried away with writing more and more as it will just waste your time and you may not be able to revise the whole things in one day before the exam. You ma do it subjectwise (if u have the patience)...or you can just write the points randomly (just like me).

Anatomy:

This is the subject i never did all through my preparation! Indeed it seems too much for an effort to read through all volumes of chaurasiya and still not able to solve the mcqs.

Recommended Books: Chaurasiya (all 3 volumes), Sure success by Ramgopal(big book), Tehalaka by Dr. Rajesh Prasad(for mcqs)

if u ae short on time, i would suggest to read the anatomy pages from ramgopal's book and do mcqs from tehalaka...this way you should be able to answer more than half the questions from anatomy, which according to my opinion is quite good. you should concentrate on nerve injuries, nerve entrapment syndromes, muscles nerve supply and actions(especially upper limb), various type of joints(asked many times!), various fossa and there contents and cranial nerves. anyway one should not be spending too much of time on anatomy as itsa low yielding subject.

Physiology:

Recommended books: Ganong (very good book), Guyton (only for referance), Tehalaka.

Here tehalaka comes in very handy. if you read all the mcqs with explaination from this, you would be able to solve majority of the common questions from physiology. supplement it with ganong with selected reading with special emphasis on general physiology topics

Biochemistry:

Recommonded books: Harper, Tehalaka, lippincott (as an alternative)

lot of people will say that lippincott is very good, but i never found it that good. I would recommend reading Harper. The newer editions of Harper have been progressively trimmed, so it should not take more that 10 days to read on the first go. Topics that should be stressed are genetics(obviously!), chapters at the beginning(like enzymes, amino acids and some general chapters), regarding metabolism, it would certainly help, if you take notes of some important points on a note book for quick revision before exam. It will certainly help.. Tehalaka is nice for revising the facts quickly

Forensic Medicine:

Recommended books: Pareikh, Tehalaka, forensic SARP

Here again Tehalaka comes in very handy. you can solve most of the mcqs from this book. Also forensic SARP is not bad at all for poisonings (especially do lead, mercuary, arsenic and others commonly asked). I would suggest you to make small notes of important features of common poisonings for quick revision later on. From Pareikh, do only selected reading. Always spend some time on ballistics...they need to be understood properly to solve the related mcqs.

Pathology:

Recommended books: Robbins(big)

This is the only book thats needed...and of course, i am not including harrison, because i persume that you keep it alongside for referance while doning any subject. This in my opinion is the most important subject(even more than medicine, surgery). If u have good grasp of pathology, it would certainly go a long way to improve your chances in PG exams. I recommend you to read this book thoroughly with more emphasis on blood, GIT, kidney and general pathology...things that you can probably skip or do selectively are: CNS, Musculoskeletal system and other chapters towards the end of the book. I you have read this book during your prof, it would certainly help.

Pharmacology:

Recommended books: Tripathi, Katzung (Referance), Goodman & Gilman (only for referance, not at all essential!), Tumors SARP

Agian this is a very important and productive subject. In tripathi, more stress should be on ANS and CVS. Tumors SARP is also quite good...just to be read selectively

Microbiology:

Recommended books: Ananthnarayan(very good book), jawetz(review), chatterjee(parsitology), SARP microbiology

Jawetz (review, not the text book) i recommend for reading the immunology part. it will help you understand the basics of immunology in a very easy manner. For rest, Ananthnarayan is good enough...special emphasis should be on general microbiology. Virology can be done selectively like doing common ones like hepatitis, rabies, AIDS, rota virus, polio and from parts you see the questions...never forget to do general virology. Bacteriology has be done thoroughly in my view. For mycology, ananthnarayan is good. you may also look at SARP for mycology. For parasitology, although chatterjee is the recommended book but it consumes much of time..i would suggest just reading it from jawetz and doing mcqs. that should be enough for only 1-2 quesions are asked from parasitology.

SPM:

Recommended books: Park (what else!), High yield biostats by tyagi or Mahajan
SPM is the subject thats often said to decide matters. If prepared properly, it can be quite scoring subject as well ...as hardly anything is asked outside Park. Important topics are first 116 (or something like that) pages. I mean up to the chapter about screening. Learn all the concepts properly. this will help you solve more than half the mcqs of SPM. Diseases should be done selectively. Do the more important diseases like tuberculosis, polio, leprosy, rabies, AIDS, syphilis, respiratory infections, rickettsial diseases, dengue, yellow fever(who cares it doesn’t occur in India!), diptheria and as you see the questions. From the remaining chapters, you should do environment and health chapter, contraceptives, health and nutrition and disease control programmes, health goals and about the health workers and their population allocations....rest can be done selectively.

Biostats you can do from high yield biostats. Its quite good. and you can do it in just one day. Nowadays some questions may even be out of that book. Ypu can also do Mahajan for biostats. Its better but consumes more time

Eye:

Recommended books: Khurana, kaski (referance), parson(referance)

Khurana will do for most of the questions. for some really hard questions, kanski comes in handy . important topics are... Cataracts, ocular injuries, uveitis, corneal ulcer, refractive errors, tumors(retinoblastoma, melanoma), retinitis pigmentosa, optic atrophy, papiloedema, chalazion.

ENT:

Recommended books: Dhingra

Nothing much to say. Dhingra will do for most of the questions. read selectively. more impotant topics acoustic neuroma, facial nerve course and palsy, otosclerosis, CSOM and its complications, layrngeal polps, nodules and cancer, DNS, sinusitis, epistaxis, abscess in reation to pharynx, tonsils.

Paediatrics:

Recommended books: Ghai, Nelson(referance)

Sometimes questions seem to be set from nelson and ghai seems to be insufficient. while thats true, but thats not a reason to read nelson. you cant gain much by reading nelson(its too huge a book). rather reading some selected topics may be useful. In Ghai, more stress should be on nenatology part, also CVS in quite good. also dont forget metabolic diseases and genetic diseases. Use nelson for refreance purpose as and when required. If u can spare some time, try to read the kidney part..that is cysts, dysplasias and vesicoureteric reflux.

Gynae and Obs:

Recommended books: Shaw(Gynae) and Dutta(Obs.)

Both very good books. in gynae, more stress should be on oncology, endometriosis, menstural disorders, infertility, fibroids. In Obs., do all the tables and flow charts. that makes it very easy to understand and most of the questions can be solved quite easily. And dont forget chapter of population dynamics and birth control.

Surgery:

Recommended books: Bailey & Love, Sabiston pretest, Schwartz (reference)

Bailey has to be done selectively according to the topics from which mcqs appear. More stress should be on GIT and genitourinary system. Schwartz can be useful for referance especially in GIT

Medicine:

Recommended books: HARRISON or CMDT(depending upon what u have already read), Harrison pretest, Medicine self assessment guide by Amit Ashish

Both books are good. Do the one that you have read during your profs. If u read Davidson during profs, i would suggest to do important topics from CMDT and less important topics from Davidson. As for Harrison, if u have read during your profs, it would certainly give you an edge. Some high yielding topics in Harrison are: CVS, Kidney(especially glomerulonephritis, renal failure), acid base imbalance, Hematology, Genetics, Viral Hepatitis. Important thing is not to get lost in reading medicine alone. Its huge subject and will never finish. So do selectively. Keep more stress on previous years' papers and the topics asked there. Medicine self assessment guide by Amit Ashish come handy for reading selectively from Harrison in retrograde manner

Skin: Harrison, Sure Success Ramgopal, Roxberg (referance)

Harisson and previous years, mcqs will do for most of the questions. Do it from sure success(ramgopal) also. Roxberg has to be used for referance as and when needed.

Anaesthesia: Sure Success Ramgopal, Lee(referance), Yadav

Nothing much to say. Mainly concentrate on previous years, questions. Yadav is said to be very good. But personally I never read it.

Ortho: maheshwari

This is the only book you should do. even though these days some questions are asked which have referances from PG level books. You are not expected to answer that. Remember you don’t need to score 100%. A score of around 65% actually will give you a very good rank

Psychiatry: Sure Success Ramgopal, Ahuja, High yield psychiatry.

Concentrate on schezophrenia, mood disorders, substance abuse, sleep cycle and disorders, autistc disorder

Radiology : No books needed here in my opinion. Just do previous years, mcqs and also do from Sure Success Ramgopal.

Time to spend on each subject: It depends upon how strong(or weak) you are in a particular subject. also you have to spend less time on subjects from which less questions area asked. anyway, i will try to give a rough idea...

Anatomy-3days(will mainly do questions from Tehalka)
Physio- 5 days
Biochemistry-10days
Forensic- 2days
Patho- 30days
Pharma- 10days
Micro- 10days
Eye-7days
ENT- 5days
SPM- 20days
Gynae & Obs.- 20days
Medicine-30days
Surgery-20days
Paeds- 7 days
SARP- 5 days
Ortho- 5days

This roughly comes out to be a little more than 6months. You may take some more or some less time depending upon your level of preparation. Its very important not to get stuck at one subject for too long.

FAQS:

1) Should i join a coaching class?

It depends upon yourself. If u can sit and study urself., there is no reason to join any coaching classes. all what coaching classes do, is they help you to get oriented towards your study. It has some advantages but it has some disadvantages too....like tests they take are oten out of reality, course management is usually a mess and you have to follow there programme ion your study. So think and decide!

2) Where should i study?

Wherever you can concentrate without undue interferance. For me, at home.

3) How many hours should i study?

12hrs a day should be the goal. make sure dont let any day go by without studying atleast an hour. Most imporant is to keep maintaining the continuity

4) Should I study alone or in a group?

Its always said to be good to do group study. But it depends upon your nature. I have always studied alone. If u are studying alone, make sure that you keep track of aippg.com forums. it can also serve as an effective group and help you to get the focus right in difficult times.

Best of luck to every hardworking doctor. If these tips can help even a single doctor, i would think that i was successful in my effort.

List of some useful sites to prepare MCQs

hello guys here is my small attempt to give you a list of some useful sites for preparing MCQs

www.oneexamination.com
www.fleshandbones.com
www.clinicaltutor.com
www.surgical-tutor.org.uk.
www.webhealthcentre.com
www.xultbooks.com

and many more to come......

i will be updating my blog everyday,so don't miss!!!!AND one more thing don't forget to leave a comment in my guest book
bye bye
Take care

New MCQ's

1-A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?

1. Damage to scalenus medius

2. Injury to suprascapular nerve

3. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

4. Spread of infection to shoulder joint

Answer

3. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

2-Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except:

1. Inflamed pelvic appendix

2. Inflamed ovaries

3. Stone in pelvic Ureter

4. Pelvic abscess

Answer

4. Pelvic abscess

3-All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except

1. Induction of thymic involution

2. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells

3. Functional thyroid

4. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis

Answer

3. Functional thyroid

4-All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except :

1. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath.

2. B cells.

3. Antigen presenting cells.

4. Vascular sinus.

Answer

4. Vascular sinus

All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except :

1. Germinal

2. Somatic.

3. Haemopoetic.

4. Tumour.

Answer

2. Somatic.

Microsatellite sequence is:

1. Small satellite.

2. Extra chromosomal DNA.

3. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA.

4. Looped-DNA.

Answer

3. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA.

Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:

1. Uncondensed.

2. Condensed.

3. Overcondensed.

4. Partially condensed.

Answers

1. Uncondensed.

The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as :

1. p and q arms.

2. m and q arms.

3. q and p arms.

4. l and s arms.

Answer

3. q and p arms.

Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except:

1. Amniotic fluid.

2. Maternal blood.

3. Chorionic villi.

4. Fetal blood.

Answer

4. Fetal blood.

Polar bodies are formed during :

1. Spermatogenesis.

2. Organogenesis.

3. Oogenesis.

4. Morphogenesis.

Answer

3. Oogenesis.

Mitochondrial DNA is :

1. Closed circular.

2. Nicked circular.

3. Linear.

4. Open circular.

Answer

1. Closed circular.

In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case ?

1. Autosomal dominant.

2. Autosomal recessive.

3. X-linked dominant.

4. X-linked recessive.

Answer

???try to find yourself

A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except:

1. A chromosomal syndrome.

2. A teratogenic syndrome.

3. A Mendelian syndrome.

4. A polygenic syndrome.

Answer

4. A polygenic syndrom

IT IS NOT THE END BE READY FOR MORE!!!! Coming soon.

MCQ-Neurology

(Neurology)
Question 1. Concerning neuroanatomy:
(a) The corticospinal tract decussates in the pons. (False)
(b) The oculomotor nerve runs in close proximity to the posterior
communicating artery. (True)
(c) The superior colliculus is found in the midbrain. (True)
(d) The trochlear (fouth cranial) nerve supplies the lateral rectus
muscle. (False)
(e) The spinal cord ends at the level of the lower border of L3 in the
adult. (False)
Question 2. Subdural haematomas can cause:
(a) Dementia. (True)
(b) Pupillary change. (True)
(c) Bradycardia. (True)
(d) Changing level of consciousness. (True)
(e) Blood-stained cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). (False)
Question 3. In a young woman with a spastic paraparesis, the following
suggest a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis:
(a) Delayed visual evoked potentials. (True)
(b) Fasciculations. (False)
(c) Raised CSF protein. (False)
(d) Oligoclonal bands in the CSF. (True)
(e) Periventricular white matter lesions on magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI) of the brain. (True)
Question 4. Unilateral facial weakness is a recognized feature of:
(a) Herpes zoster infection. (True)
(b) Motor neuron disease. (False)
(c) Acoustic neuroma. (True)
(d) Cholesteatoma. (True)
(e) Syringomyelia. (False)
Question 5. The following are true about headaches:
(a) The headache of raised intracranial pressure is worst at the end of
the day. (False)
(b) A normal CT scan rules out subarachnoid haemorrhage. (False)
(c) Amaurosis fugax may be caused by temporal arteritis. (True)
(d) Neurological signs on examination rules out migraine as a diagnosis.
(False)
(e) Cluster headaches are more common in men than in women. (True)
Question 6. The following drugs can produce parkinsonism:
(a) Chlorpromazine. (True)
(b) Benzhexol. (False)
(c) Bromocriptine. (False)
(d) Metoclopramide. (True)
(e) Haloperidol. (True)
Question 7. Concerning movement disorders:
(a) Huntington's chorea presents with progressive dementia and chorea in
middle age. (True)
(b) Myoclonus is a feature of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. (True)
(c) Infarction of the subthalamic nucleus causes ipsilateral
hemiballism. (False)
(d) Chorea is commonly found in Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease. (False)
(e) Alcohol reduces benign essential tremor. (True)
Question 8. Concerning papilloedema:
(a) There is loss of venous pulsation on funduscopy. (True)
(b) There may be enlargement of the blind spot. (True)
(c) Intracranial pressure may be normal. (True)
(d) Hypocalcaemia is a recognized cause. (True)
(e) It is a recognized feature in Guillain-Barré syndrome. (True)
Question 9. Ptosis may be a feature of:
(a) Myotonic dystrophy. (True)
(b) Horner's syndrome. (True)
(c) Abducens nerve (sixth nerve ) palsy. (False)
(d) Oculomotor nerve (third nerve) palsy. (True)
(e) Myasthenia gravis. (True)
Question 10. Concerning the Brown-Séquard syndrome:
(a) There is ipsilateral corticospinal loss below the lesion. (True)
(b) There is ipsilateral loss of joint-position sense below the lesion.
(True)
(c) There is ipsilateral loss of two-point discrimination below the
level of the lesion. (True)
(d) There is ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of
the lesion. (False)
(e) A central disc lesion at L3 would cause a Brown-Séquard syndrome in
the legs. (False)
Question 11. Concerning the brachial plexus:
(a) In brachial neuritis, severe pain around the shoulder precedes rapid
wasting. (True)
(b) Klumpke's paralysis causes proximal arm weakness. (False)
(c) Erb's palsy is caused by a lesion to C5/C6-derived regions of the
brachial plexus. (True)
(d) A brachial plexus lesion and an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome may
indicate a Pancoast tumour. (True)
(e) Vaccination may precipitate brachial neuritis. (True)
Question 12. Causes of a polyneuropathy include:
(a) Diabetes. (True)
(b) Guillain-Barré syndrome. (True)
(c) Renal failure. (True)
(d) Amyloid. (True)
(e) Multiple sclerosis. (False)
Question 13. A lesion to the common peroneal nerve at the fibular head
causes:
(a) Weakness of eversion of the foot. (True)
(b) Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. (True)
(c) Weakness of plantar flexion. (False)
(d) If long term, wasting of tibialis anterior. (True)
(e) Brisk ankle jerk. (False)
Question 14. Brainstem death may be confirmed by:
(a) Extensor response of the limbs to painful stimuli. (False)
(b) Absent corneal reflexes. (True)
(c) Absent tendon reflexes. (False)
(d) A flat EEG. (False)
(e) Absent 'doll's eye' reflexes. (True)
Question 15. A homonymous hemianopia may arise from a lesion of:
(a) The optic tract. (True)
(b) The occipital cortex. (True)
(c) The optic chiasm. (False)
(d) The optic nerve. (False)
(e) The optic radiation. (True)
Question 16. Dysarthria may result from a lesion of:
(a) The cerebellum. (True)
(b) Broca's area. (False)
(c) The hypoglossal nerve. (True)
(d) The basal ganglia. (True)
(e) The accessory nerve. (False)
Question 17. The following are clinical features of cerebellar dysfunction
(a) Postural tremor. (False)
(b) Hypotonia. (True)
(c) Dysphasia. (False)
(d) Titubation. (True)
(e) Impaired rapid altering movements. (True)
Question 18. The following clinical features may help differentiate
between a syncopal attack and a seizure:
(a) Upright posture at the onset. (True)
(b) Convulsive movements of the limbs. (False)
(c) A bitten tongue. (True)
(d) Urinary incontinence. (True)
(e) Prolonged malaise after the attack. (False)
Question 19. The following are features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage:
(a) Fever. (True)
(b) Thunderclap headache. (True)
(c) Photophobia. (True)
(d) Positive Kernig's sign. (True)
Question 20. A physiological tremor is:
(a) Present at rest. (False)
(b) Worsened by anxiety. (True)
(c) Improved by alcohol. (False)
(d) Improved by beta-blockers. (True)
(e) Familial. (False)
Question 21. A lesion of the medulla on one side may give rise to :
(a) An ipsilateral hemiparesis. (False)
(b) A contralateral hemiparesis. (True)
(c) Ipsilateral weakness of the palate. (False)
(d) Contralateral weakness of the tongue. (True)
(e) Contralateral third nerve palsy. (False)
Question 22. The following may be seen in a patient with a lesion of the
third nerve or nucleus:
(a) A fixed dilated pupil. (True)
(b) Ptosis. (True)
(c) Diplopia in all positions of gaze. (True)
(d) A history of diabetes mellitus. (True)
(e) A contralateral hemiplegia. (True)
Question 23. In a patient with a sensory ataxia:
(a) Vibration may be impaired. (True)
(b) The gait is characterized by 'scissoring' posture of the legs. (False)
(c) Romberg's test may be positive. (True)
(d) A history of alcohol abuse may be implicated in the aetiology. (True)
(e) Clonus may be elicited on examination of the legs. (False)
Question 24. A patient with herpes zoster infection of the geniculate
ganglion may present with:
(a) An upper motor neuron facial weakness. (False)
(b) Diplopia. (False)
(c) Hyperacusis. (True)
(d) Altered perception of taste. (True)
(e) Pain from the auditory meatus. (True)
Question 25. A dissociated sensory loss may be seen in:
(a) Syringomyelia. (True)
(b) Anterior spinal artery occlusion. (False)
(c) A radiculopathy. (False)
(d) Occlusion of a middle cerebral artery. (False)
(e) Compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed intervertebral disc.
(False)

Solve them !!

hai guys here are some question in mcq format but i omitted the false
option try them if you find them useful leave a comment pls.

Module (Cardiology)
Question 2. The differential diagnosis for chest pain includes:
(a) Myocardial infarction. (True)
(b) Oesophagitis. (True)
(c) Pulmonary embolus. (True)
(d) Cholecystitis. (True)
(e) Aortic dissection. (True)
Question 3. The following are causes of acute life-threatening dyspnoea:
(a) Myocardial infarction. (True)
(b) Pulmonary embolus. (True)
(c) Pneumothorax. (True)
(d) Ventricular or supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. (True)
(e) Bacterial endocarditis. (True)
Question 4. The following are clinical signs found in infective
endocarditis:
(a) Clubbing. (True)
(b) Haematuria. (True)
(c) Pyrexia. (True)
(d) Rashes. (True)
MCQs VIA WEB 2005
By A. H.
(e) Focal neurological defect. (True)
Question 5. The following are risk factors for ischaemic heart disease:
(a) Hypertension. (True)
(b) Moderate alcohol intake. (False)
(c) Female sex. (False)
(d) Hypercholesterolaemia. (True)
(e) Increasing age. (True)
Question 6. The following are classical features of cardiac syncope:
(a) Gradual onset. (False)
(b) Warning symptoms. (False)
(c) Rapid recovery. (True)
(d) Residual neurological deficit. (False)
(e) Precipitated by sudden turning of the head. (False)
Question 7. The following are causes of a pansystolic murmur:
(a) Mitral regurgitation. (True)
(b) Aortic regurgitation. (False)
(c) Tricuspid regurgitation. (True)
(d) Atrial septal defect. (False)
(e) Aortic stenosis. (False)
Question 8. The following conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis
before dental procedures:
(a) Prosthetic aortic valve. (True)
(b) Ventricular septal defect. (True)
(c) Floppy mitral valve with coexistent mitral regurgitation. (True)
(d) Enlarged left ventricle. (False)
(e) A history of infective endocarditis in the past. (True)
Question 9. The following should be considered as possible signs of a
positive exercise test:
(a) ST segment depression. (True)
(b) Exercise-induced hypotension. (True)
(c) Exercise-induced ventricular tachycardia. (True)
(d) Lack of adequate tachycardic response to exercise. (True)
(e) Leg pain at peak exercise. (False)
Question 10. The following are indications for anticoagulating a patient
who has atrial fibrillation with warfarin:
(a) Age under 60 years. (False)
(b) Associated mitral stenosis. (True)
(c) Atrial fibrillation of more than 24 hours' duration. (True)
(d) A history of cerebral thromboembolism. (True)
(e) Associated left ventricular failure. (True)
Question 11. The following are true of ventricular tachycardia:
(a) It is a life-threatening condition. (True)
(b) It may be caused by myocardial ischaemia. (True)
(c) It may be caused by hypokalaemia. (True)
(d) Amiodarone may be used to prevent recurrent episodes of ventricular
tachycardia. (True)
(e) Acute ongoing ventricular tachycardia should be treated initially
with drugs. (False)
Question 12. The following are signs of coarctation of the aorta:
(a) Radiofemoral delay in the pulses. (True)
(b) Rib notching. (True)
(c) Bruits heard over the scapula. (True)
(d) Ankle oedema. (False)
(e) Atrial fibrillation. (False)
Question 13. Functions of the recovery position include:
(a) To prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway. (True)
(b) To prevent neck injury. (False)
(c) To minimize the risk of aspiration of gastric contents. (True)
(d) To maintain a straight airway. (True)
(e) To enable cardiopulmonary resuscitation to be carried out. (False)
Question 14. Complications of prosthetic heart valves are as follows:
(a) Thromboembolic events. (True)
(b) Dehiscence of the valve ring. (True)
(c) Increased risk of infective endocarditis. (True)
(d) Failure of the valve 5 years after placement. (False)
(e) Need for anticoagulation in patients who have porcine valves. (False)
Question 15. The following statements are true of thiazide diuretics:
(a) They act at the level of the distal convoluted tubule. (True)
(b) They may cause gout. (True)
(c) Diabetic control may deteriorate. (True)
(d) Hypokalaemia may occur. (True)
(e) They cause ototoxicity. (False)
Question 16. The following are classified as high-output states:
(a) Hypertension . (False)
(b) Sepsis. (True)
(c) Hypothyroidism. (False)
(d) Pregnancy. (True)
(e) Arteriovenous malformations. (True)
Question 18. The following statements are true of the apex beat:
(a) It is the lowest and most lateral point at which the cardiac impulse
can be felt. (True)
(b) It is displaced downwards and laterally if the left ventricle is
enlarged. (True)
(c) It is thrusting in mitral stenosis. (False)
(d) It is thrusting in aortic regurgitation. (True)
(e) It is heaving in aortic stenosis. (True)
Question 17. Cardiac causes of clubbing are as follows:
(a) Uncomplicated atrial septal defect. (False)
(b) Chronic infective endocarditis. (True)
(c) Atrial fibrillation. (False)
(d) Acute endocarditis. (False)
(e) Empyema. (False)
Question 19. The following leads represent the inferior myocardium:
(a) I, AVL, and V6. (False)
(b) V2, V3, and V4. (False)
(c) AVR and V1. (False)
(d) V1-V6. (False)
(e) II, III, and AVF. (True)
Question 20. The following are possible causes of electromechanical
dissociation:
(a) Pulmonary embolus. (True)
(b) Tension pneumothorax. (True)
(c) Hypertension. (False)
(d) Dehydration. (True)
(e) Hypocalcaemia. (True)
Question 21. The following are characteristic of pericarditis:
(a) The chest pain is dull in nature. (False)
(b) There may be an associated pericardial effusion. (True)
(c) The pericardial rub may come and go. (True)
(d) The ECG usually shows regional ST elevation. (False)
(e) The ST elevation is concave. (True)
Question 22. Secondary hypertension may be due to the following:
(a) Renal artery stenosis. (True)
(b) Renal cell carcinoma. (False)
(c) Cushing's syndrome. (True)
(d) Pregnancy. (True)
(e) Oral contraceptive pill. (True)
Question 23. ECG changes due to myocardial infarction may include the
following:
(a) ST elevation. (True)
(b) Sinus tachycardia. (True)
(c) Ventricular tachycardia. (True)
(d) Complete heart block. (True)
(e) Q waves. (True)
Question 24. The following drugs are used in the treatment of hypertension:
(a) Atenolol. (True)
(b) Doxazocin. (True)
(c) Enalapril. (True)
(d) Bendrofluazide. (True)
(e) Nicorandil. (False)
Question 25. Complications of myocardial infarction include:
(a) Cardiac failure. (True)
(b) Mitral regurgitation. (True)
(c) Cerebrovascular event. (True)
(d) Myocardial rupture. (True)
(e) Gastrointestinal bleed. (False)

All the best !!!