Tuesday, July 8, 2008

List of some useful sites to prepare MCQs

hello guys here is my small attempt to give you a list of some useful sites for preparing MCQs

www.oneexamination.com
www.fleshandbones.com
www.clinicaltutor.com
www.surgical-tutor.org.uk.
www.webhealthcentre.com
www.xultbooks.com

and many more to come......

i will be updating my blog everyday,so don't miss!!!!AND one more thing don't forget to leave a comment in my guest book
bye bye
Take care

Monday, March 17, 2008

New MCQ's

1-A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm?

1. Damage to scalenus medius

2. Injury to suprascapular nerve

3. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

4. Spread of infection to shoulder joint

Answer

3. Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve


2-Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except:

1. Inflamed pelvic appendix

2. Inflamed ovaries

3. Stone in pelvic Ureter

4. Pelvic abscess

Answer

4. Pelvic abscess

3-All of the following development events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except

1. Induction of thymic involution

2. Production of surfactant by type II alveolar cells

3. Functional thyroid

4. Functional hypothalamopituitary axis

Answer

3. Functional thyroid


4-All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except :

1. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath.

2. B cells.

3. Antigen presenting cells.

4. Vascular sinus.

Answer

4. Vascular sinus


All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except :

1. Germinal

2. Somatic.

3. Haemopoetic.

4. Tumour.

Answer

2. Somatic.

Microsatellite sequence is:

1. Small satellite.

2. Extra chromosomal DNA.

3. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA.

4. Looped-DNA.

Answer

3. Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA.

Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:

1. Uncondensed.

2. Condensed.

3. Overcondensed.

4. Partially condensed.

Answers

1. Uncondensed.

The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as :

1. p and q arms.

2. m and q arms.

3. q and p arms.

4. l and s arms.

Answer

3. q and p arms.


Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except:

1. Amniotic fluid.

2. Maternal blood.

3. Chorionic villi.

4. Fetal blood.

Answer

4. Fetal blood.


Polar bodies are formed during :

1. Spermatogenesis.

2. Organogenesis.

3. Oogenesis.

4. Morphogenesis.

Answer

3. Oogenesis.



Mitochondrial DNA is :

1. Closed circular.

2. Nicked circular.

3. Linear.

4. Open circular.

Answer

1. Closed circular.


In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case ?

1. Autosomal dominant.

2. Autosomal recessive.

3. X-linked dominant.

4. X-linked recessive.

Answer

???try to find yourself


A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except:

1. A chromosomal syndrome.

2. A teratogenic syndrome.

3. A Mendelian syndrome.

4. A polygenic syndrome.

Answer

4. A polygenic syndrom


IT IS NOT THE END BE READY FOR MORE!!!! Coming soon.











Wednesday, October 3, 2007

MCQ-Neurology

(Neurology)
Question 1. Concerning neuroanatomy:
(a) The corticospinal tract decussates in the pons. (False)
(b) The oculomotor nerve runs in close proximity to the posterior
communicating artery. (True)
(c) The superior colliculus is found in the midbrain. (True)
(d) The trochlear (fouth cranial) nerve supplies the lateral rectus
muscle. (False)
(e) The spinal cord ends at the level of the lower border of L3 in the
adult. (False)
Question 2. Subdural haematomas can cause:
(a) Dementia. (True)
(b) Pupillary change. (True)
(c) Bradycardia. (True)
(d) Changing level of consciousness. (True)
(e) Blood-stained cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). (False)
Question 3. In a young woman with a spastic paraparesis, the following
suggest a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis:
(a) Delayed visual evoked potentials. (True)
(b) Fasciculations. (False)
(c) Raised CSF protein. (False)
(d) Oligoclonal bands in the CSF. (True)
(e) Periventricular white matter lesions on magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI) of the brain. (True)
Question 4. Unilateral facial weakness is a recognized feature of:
(a) Herpes zoster infection. (True)
(b) Motor neuron disease. (False)
(c) Acoustic neuroma. (True)
(d) Cholesteatoma. (True)
(e) Syringomyelia. (False)
Question 5. The following are true about headaches:
(a) The headache of raised intracranial pressure is worst at the end of
the day. (False)
(b) A normal CT scan rules out subarachnoid haemorrhage. (False)
(c) Amaurosis fugax may be caused by temporal arteritis. (True)
(d) Neurological signs on examination rules out migraine as a diagnosis.
(False)
(e) Cluster headaches are more common in men than in women. (True)
Question 6. The following drugs can produce parkinsonism:
(a) Chlorpromazine. (True)
(b) Benzhexol. (False)
(c) Bromocriptine. (False)
(d) Metoclopramide. (True)
(e) Haloperidol. (True)
Question 7. Concerning movement disorders:
(a) Huntington's chorea presents with progressive dementia and chorea in
middle age. (True)
(b) Myoclonus is a feature of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. (True)
(c) Infarction of the subthalamic nucleus causes ipsilateral
hemiballism. (False)
(d) Chorea is commonly found in Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease. (False)
(e) Alcohol reduces benign essential tremor. (True)
Question 8. Concerning papilloedema:
(a) There is loss of venous pulsation on funduscopy. (True)
(b) There may be enlargement of the blind spot. (True)
(c) Intracranial pressure may be normal. (True)
(d) Hypocalcaemia is a recognized cause. (True)
(e) It is a recognized feature in Guillain-Barré syndrome. (True)
Question 9. Ptosis may be a feature of:
(a) Myotonic dystrophy. (True)
(b) Horner's syndrome. (True)
(c) Abducens nerve (sixth nerve ) palsy. (False)
(d) Oculomotor nerve (third nerve) palsy. (True)
(e) Myasthenia gravis. (True)
Question 10. Concerning the Brown-Séquard syndrome:
(a) There is ipsilateral corticospinal loss below the lesion. (True)
(b) There is ipsilateral loss of joint-position sense below the lesion.
(True)
(c) There is ipsilateral loss of two-point discrimination below the
level of the lesion. (True)
(d) There is ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of
the lesion. (False)
(e) A central disc lesion at L3 would cause a Brown-Séquard syndrome in
the legs. (False)
Question 11. Concerning the brachial plexus:
(a) In brachial neuritis, severe pain around the shoulder precedes rapid
wasting. (True)
(b) Klumpke's paralysis causes proximal arm weakness. (False)
(c) Erb's palsy is caused by a lesion to C5/C6-derived regions of the
brachial plexus. (True)
(d) A brachial plexus lesion and an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome may
indicate a Pancoast tumour. (True)
(e) Vaccination may precipitate brachial neuritis. (True)
Question 12. Causes of a polyneuropathy include:
(a) Diabetes. (True)
(b) Guillain-Barré syndrome. (True)
(c) Renal failure. (True)
(d) Amyloid. (True)
(e) Multiple sclerosis. (False)
Question 13. A lesion to the common peroneal nerve at the fibular head
causes:
(a) Weakness of eversion of the foot. (True)
(b) Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. (True)
(c) Weakness of plantar flexion. (False)
(d) If long term, wasting of tibialis anterior. (True)
(e) Brisk ankle jerk. (False)
Question 14. Brainstem death may be confirmed by:
(a) Extensor response of the limbs to painful stimuli. (False)
(b) Absent corneal reflexes. (True)
(c) Absent tendon reflexes. (False)
(d) A flat EEG. (False)
(e) Absent 'doll's eye' reflexes. (True)
Question 15. A homonymous hemianopia may arise from a lesion of:
(a) The optic tract. (True)
(b) The occipital cortex. (True)
(c) The optic chiasm. (False)
(d) The optic nerve. (False)
(e) The optic radiation. (True)
Question 16. Dysarthria may result from a lesion of:
(a) The cerebellum. (True)
(b) Broca's area. (False)
(c) The hypoglossal nerve. (True)
(d) The basal ganglia. (True)
(e) The accessory nerve. (False)
Question 17. The following are clinical features of cerebellar dysfunction
(a) Postural tremor. (False)
(b) Hypotonia. (True)
(c) Dysphasia. (False)
(d) Titubation. (True)
(e) Impaired rapid altering movements. (True)
Question 18. The following clinical features may help differentiate
between a syncopal attack and a seizure:
(a) Upright posture at the onset. (True)
(b) Convulsive movements of the limbs. (False)
(c) A bitten tongue. (True)
(d) Urinary incontinence. (True)
(e) Prolonged malaise after the attack. (False)
Question 19. The following are features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage:
(a) Fever. (True)
(b) Thunderclap headache. (True)
(c) Photophobia. (True)
(d) Positive Kernig's sign. (True)
Question 20. A physiological tremor is:
(a) Present at rest. (False)
(b) Worsened by anxiety. (True)
(c) Improved by alcohol. (False)
(d) Improved by beta-blockers. (True)
(e) Familial. (False)
Question 21. A lesion of the medulla on one side may give rise to :
(a) An ipsilateral hemiparesis. (False)
(b) A contralateral hemiparesis. (True)
(c) Ipsilateral weakness of the palate. (False)
(d) Contralateral weakness of the tongue. (True)
(e) Contralateral third nerve palsy. (False)
Question 22. The following may be seen in a patient with a lesion of the
third nerve or nucleus:
(a) A fixed dilated pupil. (True)
(b) Ptosis. (True)
(c) Diplopia in all positions of gaze. (True)
(d) A history of diabetes mellitus. (True)
(e) A contralateral hemiplegia. (True)
Question 23. In a patient with a sensory ataxia:
(a) Vibration may be impaired. (True)
(b) The gait is characterized by 'scissoring' posture of the legs. (False)
(c) Romberg's test may be positive. (True)
(d) A history of alcohol abuse may be implicated in the aetiology. (True)
(e) Clonus may be elicited on examination of the legs. (False)
Question 24. A patient with herpes zoster infection of the geniculate
ganglion may present with:
(a) An upper motor neuron facial weakness. (False)
(b) Diplopia. (False)
(c) Hyperacusis. (True)
(d) Altered perception of taste. (True)
(e) Pain from the auditory meatus. (True)
Question 25. A dissociated sensory loss may be seen in:
(a) Syringomyelia. (True)
(b) Anterior spinal artery occlusion. (False)
(c) A radiculopathy. (False)
(d) Occlusion of a middle cerebral artery. (False)
(e) Compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed intervertebral disc.
(False)

Sunday, September 30, 2007

Solve them !!

hai guys here are some question in mcq format but i omitted the false
option try them if you find them useful leave a comment pls.

Module (Cardiology)
Question 2. The differential diagnosis for chest pain includes:
(a) Myocardial infarction. (True)
(b) Oesophagitis. (True)
(c) Pulmonary embolus. (True)
(d) Cholecystitis. (True)
(e) Aortic dissection. (True)
Question 3. The following are causes of acute life-threatening dyspnoea:
(a) Myocardial infarction. (True)
(b) Pulmonary embolus. (True)
(c) Pneumothorax. (True)
(d) Ventricular or supraventricular tachyarrhythmia. (True)
(e) Bacterial endocarditis. (True)
Question 4. The following are clinical signs found in infective
endocarditis:
(a) Clubbing. (True)
(b) Haematuria. (True)
(c) Pyrexia. (True)
(d) Rashes. (True)
MCQs VIA WEB 2005
By A. H.
(e) Focal neurological defect. (True)
Question 5. The following are risk factors for ischaemic heart disease:
(a) Hypertension. (True)
(b) Moderate alcohol intake. (False)
(c) Female sex. (False)
(d) Hypercholesterolaemia. (True)
(e) Increasing age. (True)
Question 6. The following are classical features of cardiac syncope:
(a) Gradual onset. (False)
(b) Warning symptoms. (False)
(c) Rapid recovery. (True)
(d) Residual neurological deficit. (False)
(e) Precipitated by sudden turning of the head. (False)
Question 7. The following are causes of a pansystolic murmur:
(a) Mitral regurgitation. (True)
(b) Aortic regurgitation. (False)
(c) Tricuspid regurgitation. (True)
(d) Atrial septal defect. (False)
(e) Aortic stenosis. (False)
Question 8. The following conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis
before dental procedures:
(a) Prosthetic aortic valve. (True)
(b) Ventricular septal defect. (True)
(c) Floppy mitral valve with coexistent mitral regurgitation. (True)
(d) Enlarged left ventricle. (False)
(e) A history of infective endocarditis in the past. (True)
Question 9. The following should be considered as possible signs of a
positive exercise test:
(a) ST segment depression. (True)
(b) Exercise-induced hypotension. (True)
(c) Exercise-induced ventricular tachycardia. (True)
(d) Lack of adequate tachycardic response to exercise. (True)
(e) Leg pain at peak exercise. (False)
Question 10. The following are indications for anticoagulating a patient
who has atrial fibrillation with warfarin:
(a) Age under 60 years. (False)
(b) Associated mitral stenosis. (True)
(c) Atrial fibrillation of more than 24 hours' duration. (True)
(d) A history of cerebral thromboembolism. (True)
(e) Associated left ventricular failure. (True)
Question 11. The following are true of ventricular tachycardia:
(a) It is a life-threatening condition. (True)
(b) It may be caused by myocardial ischaemia. (True)
(c) It may be caused by hypokalaemia. (True)
(d) Amiodarone may be used to prevent recurrent episodes of ventricular
tachycardia. (True)
(e) Acute ongoing ventricular tachycardia should be treated initially
with drugs. (False)
Question 12. The following are signs of coarctation of the aorta:
(a) Radiofemoral delay in the pulses. (True)
(b) Rib notching. (True)
(c) Bruits heard over the scapula. (True)
(d) Ankle oedema. (False)
(e) Atrial fibrillation. (False)
Question 13. Functions of the recovery position include:
(a) To prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway. (True)
(b) To prevent neck injury. (False)
(c) To minimize the risk of aspiration of gastric contents. (True)
(d) To maintain a straight airway. (True)
(e) To enable cardiopulmonary resuscitation to be carried out. (False)
Question 14. Complications of prosthetic heart valves are as follows:
(a) Thromboembolic events. (True)
(b) Dehiscence of the valve ring. (True)
(c) Increased risk of infective endocarditis. (True)
(d) Failure of the valve 5 years after placement. (False)
(e) Need for anticoagulation in patients who have porcine valves. (False)
Question 15. The following statements are true of thiazide diuretics:
(a) They act at the level of the distal convoluted tubule. (True)
(b) They may cause gout. (True)
(c) Diabetic control may deteriorate. (True)
(d) Hypokalaemia may occur. (True)
(e) They cause ototoxicity. (False)
Question 16. The following are classified as high-output states:
(a) Hypertension . (False)
(b) Sepsis. (True)
(c) Hypothyroidism. (False)
(d) Pregnancy. (True)
(e) Arteriovenous malformations. (True)
Question 18. The following statements are true of the apex beat:
(a) It is the lowest and most lateral point at which the cardiac impulse
can be felt. (True)
(b) It is displaced downwards and laterally if the left ventricle is
enlarged. (True)
(c) It is thrusting in mitral stenosis. (False)
(d) It is thrusting in aortic regurgitation. (True)
(e) It is heaving in aortic stenosis. (True)
Question 17. Cardiac causes of clubbing are as follows:
(a) Uncomplicated atrial septal defect. (False)
(b) Chronic infective endocarditis. (True)
(c) Atrial fibrillation. (False)
(d) Acute endocarditis. (False)
(e) Empyema. (False)
Question 19. The following leads represent the inferior myocardium:
(a) I, AVL, and V6. (False)
(b) V2, V3, and V4. (False)
(c) AVR and V1. (False)
(d) V1-V6. (False)
(e) II, III, and AVF. (True)
Question 20. The following are possible causes of electromechanical
dissociation:
(a) Pulmonary embolus. (True)
(b) Tension pneumothorax. (True)
(c) Hypertension. (False)
(d) Dehydration. (True)
(e) Hypocalcaemia. (True)
Question 21. The following are characteristic of pericarditis:
(a) The chest pain is dull in nature. (False)
(b) There may be an associated pericardial effusion. (True)
(c) The pericardial rub may come and go. (True)
(d) The ECG usually shows regional ST elevation. (False)
(e) The ST elevation is concave. (True)
Question 22. Secondary hypertension may be due to the following:
(a) Renal artery stenosis. (True)
(b) Renal cell carcinoma. (False)
(c) Cushing's syndrome. (True)
(d) Pregnancy. (True)
(e) Oral contraceptive pill. (True)
Question 23. ECG changes due to myocardial infarction may include the
following:
(a) ST elevation. (True)
(b) Sinus tachycardia. (True)
(c) Ventricular tachycardia. (True)
(d) Complete heart block. (True)
(e) Q waves. (True)
Question 24. The following drugs are used in the treatment of hypertension:
(a) Atenolol. (True)
(b) Doxazocin. (True)
(c) Enalapril. (True)
(d) Bendrofluazide. (True)
(e) Nicorandil. (False)
Question 25. Complications of myocardial infarction include:
(a) Cardiac failure. (True)
(b) Mitral regurgitation. (True)
(c) Cerebrovascular event. (True)
(d) Myocardial rupture. (True)
(e) Gastrointestinal bleed. (False)


All the best !!!

Tuesday, September 25, 2007

Don't land in the Dock

Once one decides to step abroad for medical studies, the journey of doubt and uncertainty begins. Apart from incurring the expense and inconvenience of studying and living abroad for arduous five to six years, medical students are also worried about whether their qualifications will be valid in India after course completion. Which colleges are recognised and accredited, can I work in India after course completion, hope my consultant is not fleecing me! These are some of the doubts that assail aspiring students as they fumble in the dark for a career in medicine.

Where to go    

So much has been changing in the medical education and visa regulation front of different countries that it has become quite difficult to zero in on one safe option. Russia, which in the 1980s was the most preferred country for Indians to pursue medicine,

   still holds sway among Indians despite all the political and economic upheaval. Though USA and UK are the clear favourites and are surely the best bet, obtaining a degree from there is not easy. If USA and Australia have been perceived as expensive, UK’s stringent visa procedures, changes in the Highly Skilled Migrant Program (HSMP) in the aftermath of the recent London bomb blasts have all made matters worse. Students are therefore desperately seeking cheaper and easier destinations. As a result, Bulgaria, Ukraine, Nepal, Kyrgyzstan, Armenia, Romania and Belarus and now even Mauritius have jumped on to the medical education bandwagon, claiming to be more cost effective than other destinations. Indeed at a maximum fee of Rs six lakhs for a five year course, inclusive of all living expenses, these countries are very affordable.
But what about the quality of education? With loads of options and little very little information to rely on, students can verify the credibility of universities abroad only through word of mouth. While some study abroad consultants advise that it’s best to go by the list given out by the World Health Organisation (WHO) list, an official of the Medical Council of India (MCI), who doesn’t wish to be named says, “There is no way even the MCI can know what facilities these colleges actually offer. Anyway, whether a university abroad is recognised or not, a student who wants to practice in India with a foreign degree must first sit for the screening test prescribed by the MCI and conducted by the National Board of Examinations.”
Consultants also advocate a ‘play it safe’ mode. “Medicine is a professional course and when students spend so much time and money over six years, it’s best to go through the norms prescribed by the MCI,” advises P S Raju, regional manager, Study Abroad Educational Consultants.
However, before students choose a destination, they should check whether that college/course confirms to that nation’s policy of accreditation and also verify its history, location, faculty student ratio, placement record and, in case of European countries, also the crime rate of the city the college is located in.

Chinese juggernaut

In fact all the confusion suddenly sprang into prominence when an army of Indian students marched to China in 2004 to pursue their under-graduation

in medicine. “For some reason, even the number
of Chinese universities that offered medicine increased from a mere five in 2004 to about 35 – 40
in 2007. And one would be surprised to know that
out of 5000 Indians who are studying in China today, about 1500 to 2000 are from Andhra Pradesh
alone,” says V R Ram, chief executive, Medico
Abroad.
   Yet Chinese universities have received flak from nearly everyone – consultants, the MCI, students, bank managers and medical experts – who allege that Chinese medical universities offer poor quality education and do not have English speaking faculty. Loans to study in China were sanctioned more often under the table, and not openly, because banks don’t want to risk lending money to students whose future course of action and earning potential is uncertain. What if the student doesn’t pass the MCI screening test? Recognition of colleges is another issue students are concerned about. In this regard, the MCI has released a list of 24 Chinese universities that it has awarded an Eligibility Certificate to. For a list of institutes in China, see www.mciindia.org/tools/prelease/eligibility.htm
   While on one hand the low tuition fee and living expenses attract Indian students, universities in China have in turn made attempts to raise the standard of education and living conditions, but at the cost of increasing fee to roughly $ 5500 US per annum. While some consultants expect the China trend to continue despite the hike, others argue that Indian students will soon find other cheaper destinations.
   However, the real worth of Chinese universities will be visible when Indian students graduate in 2009-10 and their performance in MCIs screening test is gauged.

New frontiers    

Experts say there is no need to press the panic button; other European countries are also in the fray, though their quality is yet to be proven. Some European universities are tying up with reputed medical colleges in USA. Nevertheless, students must beware that universities abroad are not permitted to open campuses in India or offer twinning programmes here.

   Experts suggest alternate routes that Indian students may follow, the most popular being non-clinical courses. Medicos are increasingly exploring public health and health care management as prospects that are brighter both abroad and in India. Australia and Canada are also promoting various diplomas and advance diplomas in employment-oriented courses for lab technology, dental hygiene, sports medicine etc. Pharmacy, physiotherapy, research programmes, biotechnology and bio-informatics are other fields that medical aspirants can consider in order to avoid the uncertainty that goes with studying medicine 
abroad. In fact, several students are heading to USA to do their Masters in Public Health and at the same time preparing to crack United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE).
   So don’t get jittery before you opt for your university abroad because if you have done your research right and are a good student then your dreams will surely get realised.

MCI Guidelines for Foreign Medical Studies by Indian students


Eligibility criteria
Any Indian student intending to join MBBS course in a foreign medical university needs to fulfil the following eligibility criteria
 
Attaining 17 years of age as on December 31 of applying year Passing 10 +2 or equivalent Biology, Physics and Chemistry (BiPC) should have been studied as group subjects English should have been studied as a subject Obtained 50 percent marks in the aggregate (40 percent for BC/SC/ST students)

Procedure prescribed for licensing by MCI    

Student must submit an application to MCI in the prescribed format before leaving for studies in a foreign medical university. He or she will be disclosing the university name and also enclose the relevant education documents (10th, 10 +2) and community certificate, if any. The MCI sends its approval to pursue the foreign medical degree directly to the student in the form of an ` Eligibility Certificate' after necessary verifications on the information and documents enclosed by the student

   After the student returns to India with the foreign medical degree, he or she needs to attend the Screening Test, which is compulsory and conducted by the National Board of Examinations at the instance of the MCI. Only those who obtain the Eligibility Certificate’ can sit for this test
   On clearing the screening test, the student will be awarded a provisional registration certificate of the MCI and the clearance will bring the student's foreign degree on par with an MBBS degree in India
   Subsequently, Indian students who have cleared the Screening Test will have to follow all rules and procedures that apply to those doing their MBBS course, such as completing a compulsory one-year house surgeon term Only after completion of the term, students will be allotted a permanent registration (license) by MCI, which will enable them to practice as a Doctor in India.
   
Migration isn’t easy    

In India, students can migrate from one medical college to another medical college only if the MCI permits them to do so. Basically MCI discourages migration, but does consider exceptional cases, that too on extreme compassionate grounds. Besides, the college where the applicant is currently studying and where migration is being sought must both be recognised by the MCI. To be eligible for migration, the candidate must have passed the first professional examination and must also submit his complete application to all authorities concerned within one month of passing the first professional MBBS examination.

   Similar regulations apply to students in foreign universities too. However, most students do not know that before they migrate to a new university, they should submit an affidavit stating that they will pursue 18 months of prescribed study before appearing at the second professional MBBS examination at the transferee medical college. The transfer will be applicable only after the receipt of the affidavit.
   Though universities abroad permit migrations for revenue purposes, the MCI stand on this quite clearly states that colleges cannot allow migrations directly. Hence all applications are to be referred to the council by college authorities. The council has the final say in accepting or rejecting an application and has the right to reject one in the absence of a real compassionate ground. Death of a supporting guardian, illness of the candidate amounting to disability and disturbed conditions as declared by the Government in the medical college area, are the basic criteria of compassionate grounds.

Monday, September 24, 2007

Standard Texts For preparing MCI Scr

Hello Guys
here is the list which i suggest you for preparing MCI Scr and other PG
exams

MUDIT AND ASHISH- very useful books, try to cover as much as possible.

PHYSIO(GANONG)- really pithy book. can ask from anywhere..... proof-
AI06 paper !!! try to covr as much as possible.

BIOCHEM(harper)- really imp subj....can reallly make or break ur day.
but very time consuming . can be done effectively by

group study.

PHARMAC- (KDT)dont miss anticancer, antiarryhtmics and newer drugs from
harri.

PATHO (robbns)- great book.....worth reading most of the chapters. group
study very useful.

MICRO - another difficult subject..... can never be a champ...... stick
to ananthnarayan... cover it as much as possible

retro....and dont aim to be a champ!!!

HARRISON(Medicine !!)-

most controversial subj. my warning - never try to read tht book pro. u
will never steer to the other end of that sea....and

if u do , wont know where u have landed!!!! meaning to say tht even if u
manage to read it ..will never remember all.... not

cost effective.
best thing acc to me - solve as many mcqs as possible and just have a
look in harri about each of those topics.......DONT

CRAM ALL .... ONLY READ 'THAT' TOPIC.build database gradually
secondly, HARRISON TABLES ARE POWER PUNCHES.. DONT MISS ANYONE U COME
ACROSS.............THERE ARE THOUSANDS OF HIDDEN MCQS

IN THERE!!!!

Surgery - difficult subject to cover. reading L&B is fruitless. instead
solve as many mcqs as possible. IF HAVE TIME ... do

schwartz pretest (recommended).

PSM -scoring sujbect. group study v.imp to prevent sleep.

SKIN - harrison best acc to me. few pages will cover most+ mudit ashish
......enough.

Anaesthesia - kdt for drugs, coaching class pamplhlet +mudit
khanna........enough(NO LEE).
RADIO- mudit ashish enough
RADIO THERAPY- DONT MISS THIS ONE. there are questions scattered all
place in recent exms. me did not read. if u can come

across some basic book...read it now only.......will definitely give u
an edge.


so thats it about preparations but remember, in the end it all comes to
the Dday and Dday is all that matters.so be focused

,fresh, and at ease on that day. dont torture your mind much for 1wk
before that day. do justice to each and evry question,

and PLEASE AVOID SILLY MISTAKES.......BCOS THAT WILL REALLY PRICK UR
SOUL LATER.

SUMMARY(keywords)- HASTE, FOCUS ON MCQS, REVISION, TEST PRACTICE, GROUP
DISCUSSION, DDAY.


Dr.Ashish mehrotra.

Adv before the MCI Scr

hi friends, i realise that many people must be in the same position as i
was some year back......... i know that at the start

of prep, there are a thousand questions and even more doubts and
uncertainities ,......... there is an urge to make it in the

very next exam......to use the time available most effectively so that
we dont repent later about how we used the time for

preparation.

i think the min i can for people like me is to speak out, to say
something about what i learnt from 1 yr or prep.

but one thing,........... LUCK DEFINITELY MATTERS.+matters how hard u
study, in the end it all comes down to the D-day and

how u perform on that day.also how much u can keep ur cool on that day
and steer thru the questions well makes a lot of

difference . so right from the first day, AIM FOR THE BEST BUT BE
PREPARED FOR THE WORST. in anycase, a good preparation

definitely is ALL u can do , so forget about the rest for now.

in most exams with mcq type of questions, two type of people are likely
to fare well. one.....those with a great

memory.............two..........those with a good logic and reasoning .
and the ones with both can prove to be lethal. i

think these two abilities are inborn, cant really improve on them but
one can definitely try to get the 100% of the raw

materials one has. also these abilities tend to compensate for each
other to some extent. i.e. a guy with a great logic,

reasoning and analytical skills can get more mcqs correct with less
preparation, and someone with great memory can setup a

huge database with which he can crack most of the questions. these two
types of people are always going to dominate the

initial ranks (upto 300 maybe). so i think there is no method by which u
can ensure a rank up there. these places are already

filled up!!!. so u will eventually be there if u were meant to be there.
WORK FOR it BUT DONT STRIVE FOR IT OR BE CRAZY FOR

IT. and DONT COMPARE THE AMT OF HARD WORK WITH THE OUTCOME. JUST TRY TO
GET THE BEST OUT OF YOURSELF.


realise what type are u. and u will know how much work u need to do.

all thru out the preps, i think the focus should be on GETTING THE MCQS
RIGHT that is what matters in the end . hell with the

facts and figures, get enough practice of SOLVING mcqs so that u get an
idea what is it that they want to know by asking the

question. i think this is a subconscious proccess which develops only by
doing max mcqs.

so whenever u come across any mcq, dont just look out for the ans in
case u have no idea about the topic. try to think

something, try to fit in some logic, try to rule out the options, etc
........ and believe me u will be able to get many mcqs

right in the end JUST LIKE THAT.!!!

i would always suggest retrospetive reading for most subjects. exception
: Pathology (robbins- read the imp chapter whole,

they will be help in many other subject mcqs. in fact , i say robbins is
the best book to begin prep. it will create a good

database that will help all the way)

Psychiatry ( ahuja- small and well written book. worth going thru whole)


for rest subjects best to go retro acc to me ,......... bcos,- there is
such a huge amount of theory involved. every chapter,

ever page, ever line can be framed as an mcq. no end to that. if u try
to read and remember every thing that has been

written, u would never end ur preps. so realise one thing U ARE NEVER
GONNA BE A MASTER OF EVERY SUBJECT OR TOPIC. U ARE

NEVER GONNA BE ABLE TO SOLVE 'ALL' THE MCQS. u are always gonna come
across alien mcqs no matter how much u know. so give up

the greed of knowing any subject absolutely thoroughly........ thats
never gonna happen.

instead ur motto should be to finish a subject swiftly, but covering
most of the imp and freq asked topic. and about the rest

topics......... u would come across many of them as u do more mcqs. and
in no case should u miss a whole subject by the end

of the year- that would be a hangable crime.

summarising - the first milestone should be to cover all subjects in the
first reading by covering most of the imp

topics,..............by JUL-AUG .

study one subject at a time, ........ get any mcq book (ashish amit is a
good one). take a chapter, FIRST GO THROUGH THE

MCQS............TRY TO SOLVE THEM...........THEN SEE THE ANS...... then
read the respective topic from the book.
that would make the preparation lively and interesting. keep ur focus on
playing the game.......... i.e. solving the mcqs (

hell with facts and figures). believe me u will become hungry and
addicted for mcqs in some time.

when u are finished with one subject , u will have a confidence ........
BUT IT WONT LAST !!!!
ur clarity about the subject will fade with time. (esp. applies to
people like me who have memory < 256 MB !!!!!). so the imp

thing is revision..... WILL HAVE TO READ EACH SUBJECT MORE THAN ONCE AT
ALL COST.

hence imp to be rapid in doing any subject........ dont waste too much
time on any subject........... if something taking a

frustratingly long time, JUST LEAVE IT.

so that was about doing the subjects, but there is one thing equally
important which i would like to really stress

upon.............and that is GROUP STUDY.

make a group of 4-6 good friends who are sincere enough and who carry
along with each other well. devote some hours

(preferablly 2.5-3 and at the end of the day) for group discussion.
select a good place without any disturbance (and without

any means of entertainment nearby!!). take a book like Salgunan whre
mcqs are in a haphazard manner (i.e. not topic wise

)............go thru the pages.... try to tell each other what u
know..........share information and imp point u

have.......... and look back into the book where needed... ......... one
person at a time can read aloud imp points from the

topic u come across. etc etc.... devise your methods.

that will really help u cover more topics and theory in shorter
time.....give u an alternate way of dumping database into ur

head........ and at the same time make the preparations a really
enjoying experience.

third equally imp thing is TEST PRACTICE.
after most of the people in ur group have finished the course once
(would be around aug-sept),

..... and once a week sit togather to write a paper..... that

will really help u a great deal to give u the knack of SOLVING MCQS IN
REAL TIME , show ur progress,.....ur weak subjects

.........ur guessing ability.etc. u will know how many difficult
question u should be attempting.
believe me the performance in these papers is very indicative of your
real position. so in the end u will be able to know

what to roughly expect in AI.

really tired of typing by now !.....
so best of luck

bye bye

Dr.ashish mehrotra