MCQ-Neurology

(Neurology)
Question 1. Concerning neuroanatomy:
(a) The corticospinal tract decussates in the pons. (False)
(b) The oculomotor nerve runs in close proximity to the posterior
communicating artery. (True)
(c) The superior colliculus is found in the midbrain. (True)
(d) The trochlear (fouth cranial) nerve supplies the lateral rectus
muscle. (False)
(e) The spinal cord ends at the level of the lower border of L3 in the
adult. (False)
Question 2. Subdural haematomas can cause:
(a) Dementia. (True)
(b) Pupillary change. (True)
(c) Bradycardia. (True)
(d) Changing level of consciousness. (True)
(e) Blood-stained cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). (False)
Question 3. In a young woman with a spastic paraparesis, the following
suggest a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis:
(a) Delayed visual evoked potentials. (True)
(b) Fasciculations. (False)
(c) Raised CSF protein. (False)
(d) Oligoclonal bands in the CSF. (True)
(e) Periventricular white matter lesions on magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI) of the brain. (True)
Question 4. Unilateral facial weakness is a recognized feature of:
(a) Herpes zoster infection. (True)
(b) Motor neuron disease. (False)
(c) Acoustic neuroma. (True)
(d) Cholesteatoma. (True)
(e) Syringomyelia. (False)
Question 5. The following are true about headaches:
(a) The headache of raised intracranial pressure is worst at the end of
the day. (False)
(b) A normal CT scan rules out subarachnoid haemorrhage. (False)
(c) Amaurosis fugax may be caused by temporal arteritis. (True)
(d) Neurological signs on examination rules out migraine as a diagnosis.
(False)
(e) Cluster headaches are more common in men than in women. (True)
Question 6. The following drugs can produce parkinsonism:
(a) Chlorpromazine. (True)
(b) Benzhexol. (False)
(c) Bromocriptine. (False)
(d) Metoclopramide. (True)
(e) Haloperidol. (True)
Question 7. Concerning movement disorders:
(a) Huntington's chorea presents with progressive dementia and chorea in
middle age. (True)
(b) Myoclonus is a feature of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis. (True)
(c) Infarction of the subthalamic nucleus causes ipsilateral
hemiballism. (False)
(d) Chorea is commonly found in Cruetzfeldt-Jakob disease. (False)
(e) Alcohol reduces benign essential tremor. (True)
Question 8. Concerning papilloedema:
(a) There is loss of venous pulsation on funduscopy. (True)
(b) There may be enlargement of the blind spot. (True)
(c) Intracranial pressure may be normal. (True)
(d) Hypocalcaemia is a recognized cause. (True)
(e) It is a recognized feature in Guillain-Barré syndrome. (True)
Question 9. Ptosis may be a feature of:
(a) Myotonic dystrophy. (True)
(b) Horner's syndrome. (True)
(c) Abducens nerve (sixth nerve ) palsy. (False)
(d) Oculomotor nerve (third nerve) palsy. (True)
(e) Myasthenia gravis. (True)
Question 10. Concerning the Brown-Séquard syndrome:
(a) There is ipsilateral corticospinal loss below the lesion. (True)
(b) There is ipsilateral loss of joint-position sense below the lesion.
(True)
(c) There is ipsilateral loss of two-point discrimination below the
level of the lesion. (True)
(d) There is ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature below the level of
the lesion. (False)
(e) A central disc lesion at L3 would cause a Brown-Séquard syndrome in
the legs. (False)
Question 11. Concerning the brachial plexus:
(a) In brachial neuritis, severe pain around the shoulder precedes rapid
wasting. (True)
(b) Klumpke's paralysis causes proximal arm weakness. (False)
(c) Erb's palsy is caused by a lesion to C5/C6-derived regions of the
brachial plexus. (True)
(d) A brachial plexus lesion and an ipsilateral Horner's syndrome may
indicate a Pancoast tumour. (True)
(e) Vaccination may precipitate brachial neuritis. (True)
Question 12. Causes of a polyneuropathy include:
(a) Diabetes. (True)
(b) Guillain-Barré syndrome. (True)
(c) Renal failure. (True)
(d) Amyloid. (True)
(e) Multiple sclerosis. (False)
Question 13. A lesion to the common peroneal nerve at the fibular head
causes:
(a) Weakness of eversion of the foot. (True)
(b) Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot. (True)
(c) Weakness of plantar flexion. (False)
(d) If long term, wasting of tibialis anterior. (True)
(e) Brisk ankle jerk. (False)
Question 14. Brainstem death may be confirmed by:
(a) Extensor response of the limbs to painful stimuli. (False)
(b) Absent corneal reflexes. (True)
(c) Absent tendon reflexes. (False)
(d) A flat EEG. (False)
(e) Absent 'doll's eye' reflexes. (True)
Question 15. A homonymous hemianopia may arise from a lesion of:
(a) The optic tract. (True)
(b) The occipital cortex. (True)
(c) The optic chiasm. (False)
(d) The optic nerve. (False)
(e) The optic radiation. (True)
Question 16. Dysarthria may result from a lesion of:
(a) The cerebellum. (True)
(b) Broca's area. (False)
(c) The hypoglossal nerve. (True)
(d) The basal ganglia. (True)
(e) The accessory nerve. (False)
Question 17. The following are clinical features of cerebellar dysfunction
(a) Postural tremor. (False)
(b) Hypotonia. (True)
(c) Dysphasia. (False)
(d) Titubation. (True)
(e) Impaired rapid altering movements. (True)
Question 18. The following clinical features may help differentiate
between a syncopal attack and a seizure:
(a) Upright posture at the onset. (True)
(b) Convulsive movements of the limbs. (False)
(c) A bitten tongue. (True)
(d) Urinary incontinence. (True)
(e) Prolonged malaise after the attack. (False)
Question 19. The following are features of a subarachnoid haemorrhage:
(a) Fever. (True)
(b) Thunderclap headache. (True)
(c) Photophobia. (True)
(d) Positive Kernig's sign. (True)
Question 20. A physiological tremor is:
(a) Present at rest. (False)
(b) Worsened by anxiety. (True)
(c) Improved by alcohol. (False)
(d) Improved by beta-blockers. (True)
(e) Familial. (False)
Question 21. A lesion of the medulla on one side may give rise to :
(a) An ipsilateral hemiparesis. (False)
(b) A contralateral hemiparesis. (True)
(c) Ipsilateral weakness of the palate. (False)
(d) Contralateral weakness of the tongue. (True)
(e) Contralateral third nerve palsy. (False)
Question 22. The following may be seen in a patient with a lesion of the
third nerve or nucleus:
(a) A fixed dilated pupil. (True)
(b) Ptosis. (True)
(c) Diplopia in all positions of gaze. (True)
(d) A history of diabetes mellitus. (True)
(e) A contralateral hemiplegia. (True)
Question 23. In a patient with a sensory ataxia:
(a) Vibration may be impaired. (True)
(b) The gait is characterized by 'scissoring' posture of the legs. (False)
(c) Romberg's test may be positive. (True)
(d) A history of alcohol abuse may be implicated in the aetiology. (True)
(e) Clonus may be elicited on examination of the legs. (False)
Question 24. A patient with herpes zoster infection of the geniculate
ganglion may present with:
(a) An upper motor neuron facial weakness. (False)
(b) Diplopia. (False)
(c) Hyperacusis. (True)
(d) Altered perception of taste. (True)
(e) Pain from the auditory meatus. (True)
Question 25. A dissociated sensory loss may be seen in:
(a) Syringomyelia. (True)
(b) Anterior spinal artery occlusion. (False)
(c) A radiculopathy. (False)
(d) Occlusion of a middle cerebral artery. (False)
(e) Compression of the spinal cord by a prolapsed intervertebral disc.
(False)